I’m curious if [spoilers ending] from RTTP is correct about the ballpit, would the timeline go like this?

Since that Oswald had prevented MCI from happening, the history had changed.

Say, if Jake changed the fate of Eleanor’s victims, then Jake would have reset the entire timeline that is only after MCI. Yet, that means Eleanor would never have killed her first (unknown) victim to be trapped inside the ballpit.

Does that mean Eleanor killed some people that were never in the ballpit, thus leading to Frailty?

I think my brain is being destroyed.

Since that Oswald had prevented MCI from happening, the history had changed.

Say, if Jake changed the fate of Eleanor’s victims, then Jake would have reset the entire timeline that is only after MCI. Yet, that means Eleanor would never have killed her first (unknown) victim to be trapped inside the ballpit.

Does that mean Eleanor killed some people that were never in the ballpit, thus leading to Frailty?

I think my brain is being destroyed.